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- Herausgeber: John Wiley & Sons
- Kategorie: Wissenschaft und neue Technologien
- Sprache: Englisch
- Veröffentlichungsjahr: 2018
A smarter, faster review for the CompTIA Network+ exam N10-007 Expertly authored questions provide comprehensive, concise review of 100% of all CompTIA Network+ exam objectives. This certification validates skills equivalent to nine months of practical networking experience; those earning the Network+ certificate will have the skills needed to install, configure, and troubleshoot today's basic networking hardware peripherals and protocols. CompTIA Network+ Practice Tests (Exam N10-007) offers 1200 practice questions with answers and explanations, organized into 5 full-length chapter tests, PLUS 2 practice exams, and a year of FREE access to the online test bank. Coverage includes: Network Architecture; Network Operations; Network Security; Troubleshooting; and Industry Standards, Practices, and Network Theory. It's the ideal companion to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, CompTIA Network+ Review Guide, and CompTIA Network+ Deluxe Study Guide for Exam N10-007! * Covers advances in networking technology * Reflects changes in associated job tasks * Places emphasis on network implementation and support * Includes coverage of cloud and wireless networking topics This book helps you gain the confidence you need for taking the new CompTIA Network+ Exam N10-007. The practice test questions prepare you for test success.
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CompTIA®Network+®
Practice TestsExam N10-007
Craig Zacker
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Copyright © 2018 by John Wiley & Sons, Inc., Indianapolis, Indiana
Published simultaneously in Canada
ISBN: 978-1-119-43212-8 ISBN: 978-1-119-43237-1 (ebk.) ISBN: 978-1-119-43229-6 (ebk.)
Manufactured in the United States of America
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About the Author
Craig Zacker is the author or co-author of dozens of books, manuals, articles, and websites on computer and networking topics. He has also been an English professor, a technical and copy editor, a network administrator, a webmaster, a corporate trainer, a technical support engineer, a minicomputer operator, a literature and philosophy student, a library clerk, a photographic darkroom technician, a shipping clerk, and a newspaper boy. He lives in a little house with his beautiful wife and a neurotic cat.
About the Technical Editor
Todd Montgomery has been in the networking industry for more than 35 years and holds many certifications from CompTIA, Cisco, Juniper, VMware, and other companies. Todd has spent most of his career out in the field working on-site in datacenters throughout North America and around the world. He has worked for equipment manufacturers, systems integrators, and end users of datacenter equipment in the public, service provider, and government sectors. He is currently working as a writer and technical editor and is involved in cloud projects. Todd lives in Austin, Texas, and in his free time enjoys auto racing, general aviation, and Austin’s live music venues. He can be reached at [email protected].
Introduction
Welcome to CompTIA Network+ Practice Tests: Exam N10-007. This book gives you a focused, timesaving way to review your networking knowledge and prepare to pass the Computing Technology Industry Association (CompTIA) Network+ exam. The book combines realistic exam prep questions with detailed answers and two complete practice tests to help you become familiar with the types of questions that you will encounter on the Network+ exam. By reviewing the objectives and sample questions, you can focus on the specific skills that you need to improve before taking the exam.
How This Book Is Organized
The first five chapters of this book are based on the five objective domains published by CompTIA for the N10-007 Network+ exam. There are 200 questions for each objective domain, broken down into the individual subdomains and covering each of the suggested topics. The next two chapters each contain a 100-question practice test covering all of the objective domains. Once you have prepared each of the objective domains individually, you can take the practice tests to see how you will perform on the actual exam.
Interactive Online Learning Environment and Test Bank
The interactive online learning environment that accompanies CompTIA Network+ Practice Tests: Exam N10-007 provides a test bank with study tools to help you prepare for the certification exam, and increase your chances of passing it the first time. The online test bank runs on multiple devices. The test bank includes the following:
Chapter Tests
The questions in the chapters align with objectives in the exam outline. Use these questions to test your knowledge.
Practice Exams
Two practice exams are provided to prepare you for the type of questions to expect on the actual exam.
Go to http://www.wiley.com/go/netplustestprep to register and gain access to this interactive online learning environment and test bank with study tools.
Who Should Read This Book
CompTIA recommends, but does not require, that candidates for the Network+ exam meet the following prerequisites:
CompTIA A+ certification or equivalent knowledge
At least 9 to 12 months of work experience in IT networking
CompTIA’s certification program relies on exams that measure your ability to perform a specific job function or set of tasks. CompTIA develops the exams by analyzing the tasks performed by people who are currently working in the field. Therefore, the specific knowledge, skills, and abilities relating to the job are reflected in the certification exam.
Because the certification exams are based on real-world tasks, you need to gain hands-on experience with the applicable technology in order to master the exam. In a sense, you might consider hands-on experience in an organizational environment to be a prerequisite for passing the Network+ exam. Many of the questions relate directly to specific network products or technologies, so use opportunities at your school or workplace to practice using the relevant tools. Candidates for the exam are also expected to have a basic understanding of enterprise technologies, including cloud and virtualization.
How To Use This Book
Although you can use this book in a number of ways, you might begin your studies by taking one of the practice exams as a pretest. After completing the exam, review your results for each Objective Domain and focus your studies first on the Objective Domains for which you received the lowest scores.
As this book contains only practice questions and answers, the best method to prepare for the Network+ exam is to use this book along with a companion book that provides more extensive explanations for the elements covered in each objective domain. Todd Lammle’s CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-007 provides complete coverage of all the technology you need to know for the exam.
After you have taken your pretest, you can use the chapters for the objective domains in which you need work to test your detailed knowledge and learn more about the technologies involved. By reviewing why the answers are correct or incorrect, you can determine if you need to study the objective topics more.
What’s Next
The next step is to review the objective domains for the Network+ N10-007 exam and think about which topics you need to work on most. Then, you can turn to the appropriate chapter and get started. Good luck on the exam.
Contents
Cover
Introduction
How This Book Is Organized
Interactive Online Learning Environment and Test Bank
Who Should Read This Book
How To Use This Book
What’s Next
Chapter 1: Networking Concepts
Chapter 2: Infrastructure
Chapter 3: Network Operations
Chapter 4: Network Security
Chapter 5: Network Troubleshooting and Tools
Chapter 6: Practice Test 1
Chapter 7: Practice Test 2
Appendix Answers to Review Questions
Chapter 1: Networking Concepts
Chapter 2: Infrastructure
Chapter 3: Network Operations
Chapter 4: Network Security
Chapter 5: Network Troubleshooting and Tools
Chapter 6: Practice Test 1
Chapter 7: Practice Test 2
EULA
Guide
Cover
Table of Contents
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Chapter 1Networking Concepts
THE COMPTIA NETWORK+ EXAM N10-007 TOPICS COVERED IN THIS CHAPTER INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING:
1.1 Explain the purposes and uses of ports and protocols
Protocols and Ports
SSH 22
DNS 53
SMTP 25
SFTP 22
FTP 20, 21
TFTP 69
TELNET 23
DHCP 67, 68
HTTP 80
HTTPS 443
SNMP 161
RDP 3389
NTP 123
SIP 5060, 5061
SMB 445
POP 110
IMAP 143
LDAP 389
LDAPS 636
H.323 1720
Protocol Types
ICMP
UDP
TCP
IP
Connection-oriented vs. connectionless
1.2 Explain devices, applications, protocols and services at their appropriate OSI layers
Layer 1 – Physical
Layer 2 – Data link
Layer 3 – Network
Layer 4 – Transport
Layer 5 – Session
Layer 6 – Presentation
Layer 7 – Application
1.3 Explain the concepts and characteristics of routing and switching
Properties of network traffic
Broadcast domains
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CA
Collision domains
Protocol data units
MTU
Broadcast
Multicast
Unicast
Segmentation and interface properties
VLANs
Trunking (802.1q)
Tagging and untagging ports
Port mirroring
Switching loops/spanning tree
PoE and PoE + (802.3af, 802.3at)
DMZ
MAC address table
ARP table
Routing
Routing protocols (IPv4 and IPv6)
Distance-vector routing protocols
RIP
EIGRP
Link-state routing protocols
OSPF
Hybrid
BGP
Routing types
Static
Dynamic
Default
IPv6 concepts
Addressing
Tunneling
Dual stack
Router advertisement
Neighbor discovery
Performance concepts
Traffic shaping
QoS
Diffserv
CoS
NAT/PAT
Port forwarding
Access control list
Distributed switching
Packet-switched vs. circuit-switched network
Software-defined networking
1.4 Given a scenario, configure the appropriate IP addressing components
Private vs. public
Loopback and reserved
Default gateway
Virtual IP
Subnet mask
Subnetting
Classful
Classes A, B, C, D, and E
Classless
VLSM
CIDR notation (IPv4 vs. IPv6)
Address assignments
DHCP
DHCPv6
Static
APIPA
EUI64
IP reservations
1.5 Compare and contrast the characteristics of network topologies, types and technologies
Wired topologies
Logical vs. physical
Star
Ring
Mesh
Bus
Wireless topologies
Mesh
Ad hoc
Infrastructure
Types
LAN
WLAN
MAN
WAN
CAN
SAN
PAN
Technologies that facilitate the Internet of Things ( IoT )
Z-Wave
Ant+
Bluetooth
NFC
IR
RFID
802.11
1.6 Given a scenario, implement the appropriate wireless technologies and configurations
802.11 standards
a
b
g
n
ac
Cellular
GSM
TDMA
CDMA
Frequencies
2.4 GHz
5. 0 GHz
Speed and distance requirements
Channel bandwidth
Channel bonding
MIMO/MU-MIMO
Unidirectional/omnidirectional
Site surveys
1.7 Summarize cloud concepts and their purposes
Types of services
SaaS
PaaS
IaaS
Cloud delivery models
Private
Public
Hybrid
Connectivity methods
Security implications/considerations
Relationship between local and cloud resources
1.8 Explain the functions of network services.
DNS service
Record types
A, AAA
TXT (SPF, DKIM)
SRV
MX
CNAME
NS
PTR
Internal vs. external DNS
Third-party/cloud-hosted DNS
Hierarchy
Forward vs. reverse zone
DHCP service
MAC reservations
Pools
IP exclusions
Scope options
Lease time
TTL
DHCP relay/IP helper
NTP
IPAM
Which of the following pairs of well-known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client?
110 and 25
143 and 25
110 and 143
80 and 110
25 and 80
Which of the following server applications use two well-known port numbers during a typical transaction?
NTP
SNMP
HTTP
FTP
Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system?
UDP
TCP
ICMP
IGMP
Which of the following components does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify?
A transport layer protocol
An application
A gateway
A proxy server
Which of the following organizations is responsible for assigning the well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers?
Institute for Electronic and Electrical Engineers (IEEE)
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages?
SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK
SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK
SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK
SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
Which of the following is the default well-known port number for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for web client/server communications?
22
20
80
1720
The secured version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS) uses a different well-known port from the unsecured version. Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default?
25
80
110
443
Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session?
SYN
URG
FIN
END
PSH
What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive?
MSS
Window
MMS
WinMS
What is the term for the combination of an IPv4 address and a port number, as in the following example: 192.168.1.3:23?
Socket
OUI
Well-known port
Network address
Domain
Which of the following protocols generate messages that are carried directly within Internet Protocol (IP) datagrams, with no intervening transport layer protocol? (Choose all correct answers.)
ICMP
IGMP
SMTP
SNMP
Which of the following protocols is used to exchange directory service information?
RDP
LDAP
SNMP
SMB
Which of the following is the primary application layer protocol used by web browsers to communicate with web servers?
HTTP
HTML
SMTP
FTP
Which of the following protocols appears on the network as a service that client computers use to resolve names into IP addresses?
DHCP
BOOTP
DNS
SNMP
Which of the following protocols use(s) the term
datagram
to describe the data transfer unit it creates? (Choose all correct answers.)
Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft Windows operating systems?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Network File System (NFS)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Server Message Block (SMB)
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
When analyzing captured TCP/IP packets, which of the following control bits must you look for in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header to determine whether the receiving host has successfully received the sending host’s data?
ACK
FIN
PSH
SYN
URG
Which of the following terms describes the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) exchange that establishes a connection prior to the transmission of any data?
Synchronization
Initialization exchange
Connection establishment
Three-way handshake
Alice has been instructed to install 100 Windows workstations, and she is working on automating the process by configuring the workstations to use PXE boots. Each workstation therefore must obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and download a boot image file from a TFTP server. Which of the following well-known ports must Alice open on the firewall separating the workstations from the servers? (Choose all correct answers.)
65
66
67
68
69
Which of the following explanations best describes the function of a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port number?
The port number indicates to the receiver that the sender can activate a specific port only.
The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram.
The port number is used only by the receiver to indicate the application process running on the sender.
The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to negotiate a well-known server port for the communicating processes.
What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
1023 through 65534
1 through 1024
49152 through 65535
1024 to 49151
Which of the following statements about the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
UDP does not use packet sequencing and acknowledgments.
UDP uses packet sequencing and acknowledgments.
UDP is a connection-oriented protocol.
UDP is a connectionless protocol.
UDP has an 8-byte header.
UDP has a 20-byte header.
Which of the following port values are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose all correct answers.)
21
23
20
53
69
Which of the following protocols provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
TCP
HTTP
UDP
ARP
What is the valid range of numbers for the well-known Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports used by servers?
1024 through 49151
1 through 49151
49152 through 65534
1 through 1023
Ralph is a network administrator who has just installed a new open source email server for the users at his company. The server is configured to send and receive Internet email and create a mailbox for each user that will permanently store the user’s mail on the server. Ralph next uses a protocol analyzer to examine the network traffic resulting from the new server installation. Which of the following new protocols should Ralph expect to see in his network traffic analysis? (Choose all correct answers.)
SNMP
SMTP
POP3
IMAP
RIP
Which of the following values could a web client use as an ephemeral port number when communicating with a web server?
1
23
80
1024
1999
50134
Which of the following protocols provides connection-oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI model?
TCP
HTTP
UDP
IP
Which of the following protocols is limited to use on the local subnet only?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Domain Name System (DNS)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
At which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do the protocols on a typical local area network use MAC addresses to identify other computers on the network?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Which of the following organizations developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
International Telecommunication Union (ITU-T)
Comité Consultatif International Télégraphique et Téléphonique (CCITT)
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and the routing of datagrams on a network?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Which of the following devices typically operates at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Proxy server
Hub
Network interface adapter
Router
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Some switches can perform functions associated with two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Which two of the following layers are often associated with network switching? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model are there TCP/IP protocols that can provide either connectionless or connection-oriented services to applications?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model typically have dedicated physical hardware devices associated with them? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is there a protocol that adds both a header and footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Identify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that controls the addressing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access control method that Ethernet uses.
Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
Data link layer; CSMA/CD
Data link layer; CSMA/CA
At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork?
Data link
Network
Session
Application
Which of the following is
not
a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model?
IP
ICMP
IGMP
IMAP
Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the protocol that provides the guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use?
Data link layer; connectionless
Network layer; connection-oriented
Transport layer; connection-oriented
Application layer; connectionless
Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router
Alice is a network administrator designing a new local area network (LAN). She needs to determine the type of cabling and the network topology to implement. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model apply to cabling and topology elements?
Physical and data link layers
Data link and network layers
Network and transport layers
Transport and application layers
Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets?
Application
Presentation
Transport
Network
Which of the following is a correct listing of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers, in order, from top to bottom?
Physical, data link, transport, network, session presentation, application
Application, session, presentation, transport, network, data link, physical
Presentation, application, transport, session, network, physical, data link
Session, application, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
At which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption?
Data link
Network
Session
Presentation
Application
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
Specify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model at which the Internet Protocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-oriented or connectionless.
Network; connection-oriented
Network; connectionless
Transport; connection-oriented
Transport; connectionless
An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Physical and data link
Data link and network
Network and transport
Transport and application
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (Choose all correct answers.)
HTTP
SNMP
ICMP
IGMP
UDP
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system?
Application
Presentation
Session
Physical
Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network?
IP
UDP
ARP
ICMP
TCP
Which of the following could be a valid MAC address for a network interface adapter?
10.124.25.43
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E
03:AE:16:3H:5B:11
fe80::89a5:9e4d:a9d0:9ed7
Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the Internet Protocol (IP) address of a router on the local network that provides access to other networks?
WINS Server Addresses
Default Gateway
DNS Server Addresses
Subnet Gateway
Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address?
DHCP
NAT
DNS
NTP
Which of the following protocols prevents network switching loops from occurring by shutting down redundant links until they are needed?
RIP
STP
VLAN
NAT
Which of the following are techniques used in traffic shaping to prevent networks from being overwhelmed by data transmissions? (Choose all correct answers.)
Bandwidth throttling
Rate limiting
Broadcast storming
Network address translation
Which of the following best defines the concept of the dual stack?
A computer with two network interface adapters
A computer with two installed operating systems
A computer with two sets of networking protocols
A computer with connections to two different network segments
An enterprise network has been designed with individual departmental switches because in most cases, the devices in a specific department exchange network traffic with other devices in the same department. Each of the departmental switches is also connected to a host switch, which enables devices to communicate with other departments. Which of the following terms describes this switching architecture?
Distributed switching
Port forwarding
Traffic shaping
Neighbor discovery
Which of the following terms refers to methods by which network traffic is prioritized to prevent applications from suffering faults due to network congestion?
Port forwarding
Dynamic routing
VLANs
QoS
Which of the following statements about Routing Information Protocol version 1 (RIPv1) is true? (Choose all correct answers.)
RIPv1 broadcasts the entire contents of the routing table every 30 seconds.
RIPv1 advertises the subnet mask along with the destination network.
RIPv1 broadcasts only the elements in the routing table that have changed every 60 seconds.
RIPv1 does not include the subnet mask in its network advertisements.
Which of the following is an example of a circuit-switched network connection, as opposed to a packet-switched network connection?
Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology
A landline voice telephone call
A smartphone connecting to a cellular tower
Computers connected by a wired LAN
Which of the following mechanisms for prioritizing network traffic uses a 6-bit classification identifier in the Internet Protocol (IP) header?
Diffserv
CoS
Traffic shaping
QoS
Which of the following is a network layer protocol that uses ICMPv6 messages to locate routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network?
BGP
NDP
OSPF
PoE
Which of the following is a protocol that identifies VLANs by inserting a 32-bit field in the Ethernet frame?
IEEE 802.1P
IEEE 802.1Q
IEEE 802.1X
IEEE 802.1AB
Which of the following is
not
an advantage of packet switching over circuit switching?
Packets can be transmitted out of order.
Packets can take different routes to the destination.
Packets can be stored temporarily in the event of network congestion.
Packets can be routed around areas of network congestion.
Which of the following statements about static routing are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Static routes are manually configured routes that administrators must add, modify, or delete when a change in the network occurs.
Static routes are automatically added to the routing table by routing protocols when a new network path becomes available.
Static routes adapt to changes in the network infrastructure automatically.
Static routes are a recommended solution for large internetworks with redundant paths to each destination network.
Static routes are a recommended solution for small internetworks with a single path to each destination network.
Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols does not include the subnet mask within its route update messages, preventing it from supporting subnetting?
Routing Information Protocol, version 1 (RIPv1)
Routing Information Protocol, version 2 (RIPv2)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Which of the following terms refers to a routing protocol that does
not
rely on hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes?
Interior gateway protocol
Edge gateway protocol
Distance vector protocol
Link state protocol
What is the maximum number of routes that can be included in a single RIP broadcast packet?
20
25
32
Unlimited
Which of the following routing protocols can you use on a TCP/IP internetwork with segments running at different speeds, making hop counts an inaccurate measure of route efficiency? (Choose all correct answers.)
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
What is the term for the process by which dynamic routing protocols update other routers with routing table information?
Convergence
Distance vectoring
Redistribution
Dissemination
Which of the following are terms for an area of an enterprise network, separated by firewalls, that contains servers that must be accessible both from the Internet and from the internal network? (Choose all correct answers.)
Intranet
DMZ
EGP
Stateless network
Perimeter network
Each of the following Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) events occurs on an Ethernet network when two stations transmit simultaneously, although not in the order listed. Which of the following events occurs immediately after the collision?
The two stations observe a random back-off interval.
The two stations transmit a jam signal.
The two stations stop transmitting.
The two stations listen to see if the channel is idle.
The two stations begin retransmitting their frames.
Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols measures the efficiency of routes by the number of hops between the source and the destination?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Which of the following IEEE standards calls for the use of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) media access control mechanism?
802.11ac
802.1X
802.3
All of the above
Which of the following devices is used to physically connect computers in the same VLAN?
A bridge
A hub
A switch
A router
Which of the following statements is true about an Ethernet network that uses CSMA/CD?
Collisions are a normal occurrence.
Collisions never occur unless there is a network fault.
Collisions cause data to be irretrievably lost.
Collisions are the result of duplicate IP addresses.
VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices?
Hubs
Routers
Domains
Bridges
Which of the following statements about VLANs are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
All of the devices in a particular VLAN must be physically connected to the same switch.
A VLAN creates a limited broadcast domain on a switched network.
You must have VLANs on a switched network for communication between computers on different cable segments to occur.
A router is required for communication between VLANs.
Which of the following elements can be used to identify the devices in a particular VLAN? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hardware addresses
IP addresses
DNS names
Switch port numbers
Network address translation (NAT) operates at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Data link
Network
Transport
Application
Which of the following types of routing protocols route datagrams between autonomous systems?
EGP
RIP
IGP
OSPF
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on a TCP/IP network?
You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifier.
You borrow bits from the network identifier to create a subnet identifier.
You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier.
You create a subnet identifier by borrowing half of the bits from the network identifier and half from the host identifier.
Which of the following IPv4 addresses are you unable to assign to a network host? (Choose all correct answers.)
1.1.1.1
229.6.87.3
103.256.77.4
9.34.0.1
How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network?
8
15
16
17
Which of the following are
not
valid IPv4 addresses in the private address space defined by RFC 1918? (Choose all correct answers.)
10.16.225.1
172.33.19.7
192.168.254.77
10.255.255.255
172.15.2.9
Alice has been instructed to create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
Which of the following is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A network?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255
Which of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server?
10.0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255
169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255
224.0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255
In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found?
Class A
Class B
Class C
None of the above
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
fe00::b491:cf79:p493:23ff
2001:0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56
fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb
2001:0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f
To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a standard for IP addressing that includes the ability to create subnets using any number of IP address bits, rather than using 8-bit blocks. Which of the following terms describes this ability?
VLSM
APIPA
VLAN
EUI-64
Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers?
255.248.0.0
255.252.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
Ed has been hired to design a company’s network. The company has an assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Ed’s client wants the network to be configured with 10 subnets, each with 14 hosts. Is this configuration possible with the given address, and if so, how many subnets and hosts can Ed create on the network?
Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet.
No, this will not work. A Class C address cannot be subnetted to create 8 subnets.
No, this will not work. Although there are sufficient bits available to create 10 subnets, there are not enough bits left over for Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet.
Yes, this will work. Ed can create 10 subnets with 14 hosts per subnet. By using 3 subnet bits, he can create 10 subnets, which leaves 5 bits to create up to 30 hosts per subnet.
What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-bit subnet identifier?
256
1,022
1,024
16,382
16,384
Alice has been asked to design her company’s Internet Protocol (IP) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network?
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.240
4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.248
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224
5 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.192
A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hexadecimal MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter’s IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-64 value?
FE80::001F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0
FE80::FFFE:021F:9EFC:7AD0
FE80::FF00:1F9E:FC7A:D0FE
FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0
The default mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask for the network?
10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192
9 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128
10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0
11 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192
What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of a network with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20?
142
144
4,094
4,096
Ralph has a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create, and how many hosts can he create per subnet?
64 subnets and 2046 hosts
32 subnets and 2046 hosts
30 subnets and 1022 hosts
62 subnets and 1022 hosts
Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask?
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
If you have a network address of 192.168.1.32/27, what is the valid range of host addresses you can use for your workstations?
192.168.1.33 through 192.168.1.63
192.168.1.33 through 192.168.1.62
192.168.1.34 through 192.168.1.62
192.168.1.34 through 192.168.1.63
Alice has been assigned the network address 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have available to her?
510
512
1022
1024
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns IPv4 addresses from which of the following classes to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients that cannot contact a DHCP server?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Which of the following Internet Protocol (IP) address classes identifies multicast addresses?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network?
192.167.9.46
172.16.255.255
10.1.0.253
225.87.34.1
Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for a network with the address 172.16.0.0/20?
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
Ed has been assigned the IPv4 network address 192.168.2.32/28 for the computers in his department. Which of the following ranges of addresses can Ed use to configure the TCP/IP clients on his computers?
192.168.2.32 to 192.168.2.55
192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.46
192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.40
192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.254
Which of the following IP addresses is available for use on a network device?
1.0.0.1
127.98.127.0
234.9.76.32
240.65.8.124
Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address?
Link local
Global unicast
Site local
Anycast
Ralph is having trouble accessing the Internet this morning and calls his colleague Ed in another department to find out if he’s experiencing the same problem. Ed says he’s having no problem accessing the Internet, but that might not mean anything because they might be on different subnets. Ralph asks Ed how to tell if they’re on different subnets. Ed asks Ralph to read him his IP address. Ralph’s address is 192.168.176.171, and Ed says his is 192.168.176.195. Both of them are using the same subnet mask: 255.255.255.224. Are the two men working on the same subnet?
No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160.
No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192.
Yes, they are on the same subnet. The subnet address for both is 192.168.176.192.
Yes, they are on the same subnet. The subnet address for both is 192.168.176.160.
Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?
Bus to ring
Ring to star
Star to bus
Bus to star
Star to ring
An electrician installing a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network?
Bus
Star
Logical ring
Mesh
Which of the following statements about a wired local area network (LAN) is true?
Wired LANs support only the star topology.
Wired LANs support only the star and bus topologies.
Wired LANs support only the star and ring topologies.
Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.
Which type of network is typically confined to a small area, such as a single room, floor, or building?
WAN
LAN
MAN
CAN
Which type of network connects local area networks (LANs) in distant locations?
WAN
LAN
MAN
CAN
Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations?
Bus
Star
Ring
Mesh
A wireless access point (AP) enables computers equipped with wireless network interface adapters to function in which of the following topologies?
Star
Ad hoc
Bus
Infrastructure
Which of the following topologies is used by the majority of new Ethernet networks installed today?
Bus
Virtual ring
Mesh
Hierarchical star
Which of the following technologies associated with the Internet of Things (IoT) is often used to identify pets using embedded chips?
Z-wave
Bluetooth
NFC
RFID
Alice has constructed a five-node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which of the following terms describes this network arrangement?
SAN
PAN
WAN
MAN
Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)?
Bluetooth
Z-Wave
NFC
ISDN
Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that is designed to facilitate communications between two devices within which of the following distances from each other?
4 millimeters
4 centimeters
4 decimeters
4 meters
Which of the following network topologies are used by wireless local area networks (WLANs)? (Choose all correct answers.)
Ad hoc
Bus
Infrastructure
Star
Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks?
Bus
Ring
Star
Mesh
On an Ethernet network using the star topology, which of the following devices can function as the cabling nexus that forms the figurative center of the star? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hub
Router
Switch
All of the above
Which of the following topologies enables wireless devices to access resources on a wired network?
Ad hoc
Star
Infrastructure
Bus
Which of the following components are required for two computers to communicate using an IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN using an ad hoc topology?
A router connected to the Internet
A wireless access point
An external antenna
None of the above
Which of the following is typically
not
an example of the Internet of Things (IoT)?
A key fob that unlocks your car
A smartphone home automation app
A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker
A seismic early warning system
Which of the following topologies provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network?
Star
Ring
Mesh
Bus
Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology?
10Base2
10Base-T
100Base-TX
1000Base-T
Which of the following network types are typically wireless? (Choose all correct answers.)
WAN
PAN
SAN
WLAN
In its physical implementation, a LAN using a logical ring topology most closely resembles which of the following physical topologies?
Bus
Mesh
Star
Ad hoc
Which of the following wireless networking technologies will never experience interference from a 2.4 GHz wireless telephone? (Choose all correct answers.)
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11b
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
Which of the following wireless networking standards is capable of supporting speeds of 54 Mbps and is also backward compatible with IEEE 802.11b?
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11 g
IEEE 802.11n
Bluetooth
IEEE 802.11
Which of the following wireless LAN standards include the ability to use multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) antennae? (Choose all correct answers.)
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11b/g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
Which of the following is a cellular communication technology that is virtually obsolete in the United States?
GSM
CDMA
CSMA/CD
TDMA
Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards uses the Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) signal modulation technique?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11 g
802.11n
802.11ac
When designing a wireless LAN installation, which of the following are valid reasons to install a unidirectional antenna in an access point, rather than an omnidirectional one? (Choose all correct answers.)
The access point will be located against an outside wall.
There are many interior walls between the access point and the most distant workstation.
A unidirectional antenna can be focused to a specific signal pattern width.
All of the above.
How do wireless networking devices conforming to the IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards achieve transmission speeds greater than 72.2 Mbps?
By using direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation
By using multiple antennae to transmit several data streams simultaneously
By using frequencies in the 5 GHz band
By sacrificing transmission range for speed
Which of the following are possible reasons why the 5 GHz frequency tends to perform better than the 2.4 GHz frequency on a wireless LAN? (Choose all correct answers.)
The 5 GHz frequency has more channels than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
The 5 GHz frequency supports longer ranges than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
The 5 GHz frequency conflicts with fewer common household devices than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
The 5 GHz frequency transmits at faster speeds than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
Alice is attempting to deploy an IEEE 802.11b/g wireless LAN on the fifth floor of a ten-story office building that is surrounded on all sides by other office buildings, all of which seem to be running many wireless LANs. Scanning the 2.4 GHz band, she sees literally dozens of networks, spread across all of the available channels. As a result, her wireless devices have trouble connecting to their access point, and when they do, they achieve only low speeds. Choose the two tasks from the following list that Alice should perform to enable the wireless clients to connect to the network most reliably. (Choose two correct answers.)
Upgrade all of the wireless network devices to IEEE 802.11n.
Configure the wireless devices to use the 5 GHz band.
Configure all of the network devices to use WPA2 encryption with AES.
Configure the access point to suppress SSID broadcasts.
Upgrade all of the network devices to the latest firmware.
Which of the following is the fastest speed achievable by a wireless LAN using the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 standards?
54 Mbps
600 Mbps
1.3 Gbps
2.6 Gbps
What is the term for the technology implemented in the IEEE 802.11ac standard that enables a wireless device to transmit multiple frames to multiple clients simultaneously?
MIMO
Channel bonding
CSMA/CA
MU-MIMO
On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wireless network running at 2.4 GHz with multiple access points, the traditional best practice is to use channels 1, 6, and 11, with no two adjacent access points configured to use the same channel. Which of the following is the real reason why this is a good plan?
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 have more bandwidth than the other channels.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 have greater ranges than the other channels.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the default settings on most wireless devices.
Ralph is performing a site survey for a wireless LAN installation in a warehouse with two offices at either end of the building, approximately 300 feet apart. If he installs a single access point in the center of the warehouse, equidistant from the two offices, which of the following standards should he look for when purchasing hardware so that workstations in both offices will be able to connect to the network at the best possible speed?
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
Which of the following terms defines a wireless LAN transmission technique in which devices use multiple antennae to increase transmission speeds?
MIMO
TDMA
PAN
Ant+
What is the maximum channel width possible using wireless networking equipment based on the ratified IEEE 802.11 standards?
20 MHz
40 MHz
80 MHz
160 MHz
Which of the following wireless networking standards are capable of using only the 5 GHz frequency? (Choose all correct answers.)
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11b
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards provides the greatest possible throughput?
802.11a
802.11ac
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
Which of the following IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards are capable of supporting both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
802.11ac
What is the maximum number of transmit and receive antennae supported by the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards?
2
4
8
16
Which of the following is the term for the network name that you use to connect a client device to an access point on a wireless LAN?
BSS
ESS
SSID
BSSID
Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards define devices with a maximum aggregate channel width of 20 MHz? (Choose all correct answers.)
802.11a
802.11g
802.11n
802.11ac
Which of the following cloud service models enables you to select the operating system you want to install?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
All of the above
When you contract with a provider to obtain email services for your company using their servers in the public cloud, which of the following service models are you using?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
None of the above
Which of the following cloud service models provides the consumer with the most control over the cloud resources?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS all provide the same degree of control.
Alice has just created a new Windows Server 2016 virtual machine using remote controls provided by a cloud service provider on the Internet. Which of the following cloud architectures is she using? (Choose all correct answers.)
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
Public cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
In which of the following cloud models does a single organization function as both the provider and the consumer of all cloud services?
Public cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Ad hoc cloud
Ed is the overnight manager of his company’s datacenter, and he is responsible for both private and public resources in the company’s hybrid cloud. Due to a new TV commercial shown that night, the company’s website experiences a massive upsurge in traffic. The web server farm on the private cloud is being overwhelmed, so Ed configures some virtual machines in the public cloud to take up the slack. Which of the following is a common term for what Ed has done?
Cloud busting
Cloud bursting
Cloud splitting
Cloud migrating
Microsoft’s Outlook.com email service is an example of which of the following cloud service models?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
None of the above
Which of the following statements about cloud delivery models is true?
A public cloud is inherently insecure because anyone can access it.
A private cloud consists of hardware that is all located in a single datacenter.
A hybrid cloud enables administrators to migrate services between public and private resources.
Public, private, and hybrid clouds all utilize the same hardware resources.
Ed has just created a new Windows application for his company, and he wants to deploy it in the public cloud. He is looking for a provider that will furnish his company with a fully installed and configured Windows server on which he can install and run his application. Which of the following service models is he seeking to use?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
None of the above
In which of the following DNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query? (Choose all correct answers.)
A DNS client sends the server name
www.adatum.com
from a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution.
A client’s DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find the authoritative server for the
com
top-level domain.
A client’s DNS server sends a request to the
com
top-level domain server to find the authoritative server for the
adatum.com
domain.
A client’s DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name
www.adatum.com
from a URL to its ISP’s DNS server for resolution.
A client’s DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www.
Which of the following devices would you most likely configure to function as a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server?
A wireless router
An unmanaged switch
A hub
A bridge
Which of the following protocols are responsible for assigning IP addresses to hosts? (Choose all correct answers.)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Domain Name System (DNS)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used only for reverse name resolution?
MX
AAAA
CNAME
PTR
201.Which of the following features is supported by DHCP, but not by BOOTP and RARP?
Dynamic address allocation
Relay agents
Manual address allocation
Automatic address allocation
Which of the following message types are exchanged by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients and servers during a successful IP address allocation transaction? (Choose all correct answers.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPINFORM
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPNAK
DHCPRENEW
DHCPRELEASE
Which of the following message types are exchanged by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients and servers during a successful IP address lease renewal transaction? (Choose all correct answers.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPINFORM
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPNAK
DHCPRENEW
DHCPRELEASE
Which of the following is not a protocol used to allocate IP address assignments to clients on a network?
ARP
RARP
BOOTP
DHCP
Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query?
The DNS server responds immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.
The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers.
The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by forwarding the name resolution request to another DNS server in a recursive query.
The DNS server responds immediately if it is the authoritative server for the domain in which the requested name is located. Otherwise, it returns an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.
What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers?
Requestor
Forwarder
Authority
Resolver
Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the IP address of a device that performs domain name resolution services?
WINS Server Addresses
Default Gateway
DNS Server Addresses
Subnet Gateway
Which IP address allocation method is not supported by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
Manual
Dynamic
Stable
Automatic
On a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, what is the name of the element you create to specify which IP addresses the server should assign to clients?
Range
Scope
Pool
Subnet
Why is it necessary to use a relay agent to enable a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to assign IP addresses to clients on other networks? (Choose all correct answers.)
Because DHCP requires a separate license for each subnet
Because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting DHCP servers on other networks directly
Because DHCP must use the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) to communicate with clients
Because the DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used to resolve a hostname into an IPv6 address?
MX
PTR
AAAA
CNAME
Ralph has configured a server called NE6 to function as a web server. He does not want to change the server’s existing name, but he wants it to be accessible to clients using the name
www
